prior to Marx, Locke and Smith used the term property without adjectives exclusively and the former argued that humans had a natural right to property. Marx distinguished personal and private property. liberal economists then picked it up and started using private property in the same sense that Locke and Smith had used property. it’s a bit hard to cite this as search engines just turn up liberal economists. but that’s the gist of it.
prior to Marx, Locke and Smith used the term property without adjectives exclusively and the former argued that humans had a natural right to property. Marx distinguished personal and private property. liberal economists then picked it up and started using private property in the same sense that Locke and Smith had used property. it’s a bit hard to cite this as search engines just turn up liberal economists. but that’s the gist of it.
Thanks, that’s enough to go on!