If a judge is called ‘corrupt’ by a defendant outside court in front of the media, or if something more unambiguously libelous is said, can the judge sue the defendant?

  • AbouBenAdhem@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    2
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    edit-2
    7 months ago

    I’m guessing that could give the defendant ground to appeal the original ruling because the judge was biased by the alleged libel.

      • filtoid@lemmy.ml
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        7
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        7 months ago

        Judges hate this this one trick. Call them rude words then they can’t convict you because that would make them biased!

      • stinerman [Ohio]@midwest.social
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        4
        ·
        edit-2
        7 months ago

        No it is not. You can appeal if the judge was biased before he was assigned the case. After he takes the case if he becomes “biased” because you called him names and defamed him…no. If you could, every defendant would try to piss off the judge so that they could win on appeal because s/he was biased during the trial.

        • AbouBenAdhem@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          1
          arrow-down
          2
          ·
          7 months ago

          What if the judge loses the libel case? The defendant could then argue the “unfounded” libel charge was symptomatic of a preexisting bias.

          • NeoNachtwaechter@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            2
            ·
            7 months ago

            What if the judge loses the libel case?

            Then you should look for stronger insults LOL

            No. There is nothing to it. Real lawyers and judges have heard it before, and better.