• splendoruranium@infosec.pub
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    15 hours ago

    If arousal isn’t a real thing and it’s the fault of the person being aroused, would that suggest total nudity should be ok as well?

    Remember this whole discussion is about discrimination. So what you’re asking is “In contexts where full male body nudity is arbitrarily deemed acceptable, why wouldn’t full female body nudity be acceptable as well?”

    And the answer, of course, is that there’s no reason to make a distinction, is there?

    • IhaveCrabs111@lemmy.world
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      23 minutes ago

      Well yes. In the same context there are varying degrees of nakedness. A man only need his pants off to be able to describe him as exposing himself, you know exactly what’s going on and the rest is kind of irrelevant. Whereas with a woman you would have to specify as to whether she is exposing her genitals or breasts.